trickyrick
Well-known member
Hey Guy's, I have been perusing this board for months, it is a great wealth of knowledge. This is my first post and I know it is probably one of the most redundent posts throughout the board so forgive me. Let me give you a little back ground before I ask my question. I used to own a loaded mark IIC, loaded. I used it for 12 years, it was 82 and I bought it new. Selling it was the biggest mistake I ever made. It was not a C+ just standard. I am looking for a new amp. I am thinking abaout a MKIII because right now they are more abundant than the IV's and they are less money. I am not a gigging musician, I just like to record a lot at home and jam with friends. Alright, sorry for the rant.
My question is, can I get a close lead tone from the III that I got with the II, or is that only obtainable from a IV? The III I am looking at is loaded, Simulclass, reverb and stock with an EVM. No stripe. I have read a lot of the posts, and I keep seeing conflicting opinions. Can someone with experience with all 3 models shed some light on this for me. It doesn't need to be an exact match, but I would like it to be smooth like the C. I appreciate any help I can get from you experts. Thanks. Rich
My question is, can I get a close lead tone from the III that I got with the II, or is that only obtainable from a IV? The III I am looking at is loaded, Simulclass, reverb and stock with an EVM. No stripe. I have read a lot of the posts, and I keep seeing conflicting opinions. Can someone with experience with all 3 models shed some light on this for me. It doesn't need to be an exact match, but I would like it to be smooth like the C. I appreciate any help I can get from you experts. Thanks. Rich