sbalderrama
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- Feb 28, 2007
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I recently was able to borrow a friends IIC+. In the past I owned a Mark IV(a) that I sold quite a while ago. The IIC+ seems like it has quite a bit more gain on tap than I remember from the IV, does this seem right or am I just mis-remembering my IV?
The IIC+ can get downright brutal, especially with the EQ engaged. Definately gets that heavy boogie Mark tone. I'm not convinced its the "end all be all" of the Mark series, but I don't have a III or IV around to compare it with. For anything less than bruising distortion, I actually prefer my Lonestar. The lonestar with a boost has lead tone to die for. I also have an early Mark 1 ( #355), and the IIC+ is a very different amp from that one. The Mark 1 really is like a hopped up fender, including the tendency towards flabby bass. The IIC+ has tons of tight bass that sounds great going through my Theile EVM.
The IIC+ can get downright brutal, especially with the EQ engaged. Definately gets that heavy boogie Mark tone. I'm not convinced its the "end all be all" of the Mark series, but I don't have a III or IV around to compare it with. For anything less than bruising distortion, I actually prefer my Lonestar. The lonestar with a boost has lead tone to die for. I also have an early Mark 1 ( #355), and the IIC+ is a very different amp from that one. The Mark 1 really is like a hopped up fender, including the tendency towards flabby bass. The IIC+ has tons of tight bass that sounds great going through my Theile EVM.