mk3 channel/mode question

[Orpheo]

Hi Guys,

I know that the mk3 has 3 'channels', though the manual describes it as modes. With the volumepot-mod for r2 you can make r2 much more useable, I know that.but.... is the mk3 a singlechannel amp with 3 modes, or an amp with 3 distinct, seperate channels? (like the mk5 and roadking, and to a lesser degree the mk4, or the marshall jvm, for that matters).

 

[Sp3ktral]

all 3 channels use the same EQ and basically have the same voicing with more or less gain

that was my only complaint about the Mark III, but some people dig that!

so, you don't have 3 separate and completely different channels.

hope this helps!

 

[MrMarkIII]

Define "channel". How discrete much each be? Does it depend on how much circuitry is shared between "channels"? In a Mark III, that would be quite a bit more than a Mark V, at least as far as the tone stack(s).
Still, the signal in both amps goes to the same set of tubes, no matter how many knobs and switches you fiddle with.
With a Mark III, you can change the sound of the Lead channel without influencing the Clean (R1) sound. The pre-amp tubes in a Mark V have much more overlap.
I'd call them "modes". That's what Mesa called the Mark III: a "tri-modal" amplifier.

 

[kdorsey]

The interpretation of the term "channel" changed over time since the MkII was released. And for marketing reasons, amp manufactures were looking for ways to tout their tonal flexibility as more genres wanted to switch from crystalline clean to buzz saw with a single button push. Some companies claimed that it was impossible to completely control tone and gain without completely separate gain stages and tone stacks. Others chose to share some components to achieve the same goal. Who was right? Honestly, I don't care. But it filled our heads with ideas that certain amps weren't good because they didn't have completely autonomous gain and/or tone between "channels". I call zombie BS.

The MkIII came out during the height of the "channel races" but ch1 and ch2 share so much that it was a chore to balance the two. And yes, I bought it because it had 3 channels - oh, and it sounded kick-a$$! Does that make it bad? Not to me. I have an un-modded green stripe that balances very well for me without the R2 adjustment. Does that mean that it's not a 3 channel amp, more like that of the MkIV and MkV? It means it's different. It has 3 modes that set the stage for Boogie's future and it works fine for me.